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I'm confused. My boss sold his practice last year but remained as an employee. Before the sell he told us that EVERYTHING will remain the same. NOTHING is changing. Within this we're assuming 401k, hours, employees, pay etc... We were paid biweekly and our contribution to our 401k was automatically deducted and put into our funds (and whatever %he matched). That all stopped after practice was sold. So nothing was takin from our cks and I'm assuming he didn't contribute. When we asked what was going on, he replied the new boss had until October to put in. Another source told me it would also have to be retroactive. Yesterday at 530 pm he (previous employer) handed us a letter saying, " we are providing you notice that, effective April 30, 2016, bla bla bla name of previous practice, the employer will be terminating the bla bla bla 401k plan. Effective with this amendment, no future benefits will accrue after April 30, 2016. Your account balance will not be decreased as a result of this amendment." Ok with that being said, if he is terminating it as if April 30, what happens to all of that time in between? If he sold the practice in 8/2015, shouldn't that have been terminated then and brought to the attention of the new owner? I brought it to the attention of the new owner and he had no idea about this letter nor our 401k. Is our old employer trying to pull a fast one on us because he has in the past.. He may he forgot this step in closing and is now trying to cover up. Shouldn't he have given this letter to us a long time ago as well? Giving us time to flip our plans. 2 days notice and the new owner had no clue of this. Shady?!?! Who is responsible? Any help is appreciated. Thank you.