If employee participates in 401k with company A for 5 years from 1989 to 1994 and is fully vested in the plan. Then works for company B (which resulted from a merger of company A and 2 other companies) for a period of 3 1/2 years from 2010-2013. company B's plan had 5 year vesting @ 20% / year. Company B claims employee is only 60% vested.
Question: would employee be fully vested due to service with predecessor (company A), or does the 16 year break somehow disqualify the prior service?