Guest Mia B Posted October 19, 2001 Posted October 19, 2001 Is anyone aware of IRS guidance re: at what point a self-insured welfare plan is discriminatory when the contributions made by highly compensated employees are lower than those made by other plan beneficiaries? I'm looking for a formula for a mechanical (rather than conceptual) analysis. I.e., how is Reg. 1.105-1(e) actually implemented? All leads are appreciated
GBurns Posted October 23, 2001 Posted October 23, 2001 You lost me somewhere. 1.105-1(e) gives a clear mathematical (mechanical) formula, just plug in the numbers where they tell you. 1.105-1 deals with "Amounts attributable to employer contributions." It applies to all accident and health plans. The point at which a self-insured welfare plan becomes discriminatory is a different issue so there is no I.e as you put it in your post. What are you trying to find out? George D. Burns Cost Reduction Strategies Burns and Associates, Inc www.costreductionstrategies.com(under construction) www.employeebenefitsstrategies.com(under construction)
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