Gary Posted December 21, 2001 Posted December 21, 2001 A plan requires ee contributions. At termination they allow for lump sums. It would appear that the lump sum would have to be at least as much as the present value of the benefit. Whether the plan bases it on the immediate or deferred benefit. Can a plan actually compute the lump sum to be the accumulated contributions plus the present value of the Er derived benefit, even if less than method stated above? I don't know that it would make sense that way. Anyone know of any cites to support thisone way or the other?
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