pbarrett Posted December 28, 2001 Posted December 28, 2001 We have a one-man mp plan we want to restate to a ps plan. Originally, we thought we would make the effective date 1/1/02 for the restatement and have the assets renamed as of 12/31/01 so we could do a final 5500. Now we are thinking we can't have the one-day lag period. If we restate and retitled the assets effective 1/1/02, would we have to do two 5500s for the mp plan? One for '01 and a final for the one day in '02? I think I am just confusing myself. This can't be that complicated. Help!
david rigby Posted December 28, 2001 Posted December 28, 2001 I think that is correct. Merging the plans on 1/1/2002 will give you a one day plan year, requiring a 5500. But so what? That gives you more time to get the paperwork done. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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