John A Posted April 16, 2002 Posted April 16, 2002 I don't think there's any guidance in this area, so I would like to know what common practice is in the following area: How do you treat money of an alternate payee for top-hevy purposes? If the money is segregated from the participant to the alternate payee, for top-heavy purposes: do you treat the money as if it still belonged to the participant, as an in-service withdrawal, or how do you treat the segregated money for top-heavy purposes? If the money is distributed to the alternate payee, for top-heavy purposes: do you treat the money as if had been distributed to the participant (in-service withdrawl if participant is still employed, "regular" distribution if participant has terminated employment), or how do you treat the distribution to the alternate payee for top-heavy purposes. The prior threads I found on this topic were: http://www.benefitslink.com/mbmirror/11195.html http://www.benefitslink.com/mbmirror/9220.html What are your practices regarding how alternate payees are treated for top-heavy purposes?
rcline46 Posted April 17, 2002 Posted April 17, 2002 First, I assume the QDRO applies to a key employee. Then I assume the alternate payee is/was spouse, so if employed would also be a key employee by attribution. I consider the distribution to first be transferred to an account for the alternate payee. The money is still counted as key. Then the key becomes a former key. Under new rules the money for a former key disappears from the calculation after 1 year, regardless if distributed or not. I do not feel the money remains counted as an inservice distribution because it would be double counted - consider the ex-spouse still working - how would you count the money?
david rigby Posted April 17, 2002 Posted April 17, 2002 I think the issue is the same whether the QDRO applies to a Key or a non-Key. But on a practical level, if the T-H test is not even close to 60%, this might be a waste of time. Also, if the plan in question is a DB plan, then it is seems apprpriate to count the alternate payee's portion, even if distributed at any point in the past. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Belgarath Posted April 17, 2002 Posted April 17, 2002 I agree with Pax. Although there isn't any specific guidance, since the alternate payee is treated as a beneficiary of the plan for 415, and since beneficiaries are included in the top heavy test, then it would seem logical to include the account balance inthis situation. (although I can see why people would argue against it) Also, as a practical matter, since this "distribution" would be for reasons other than separation from service, death, disability, or termination fo the plan, then wouldn't you have the 5-year lookback, at a bare minimum, even if you disagree with including this balance? I think you are stuck with counting it. I would hope that the IRS might come out with some guidance on this. Maybe someone can send this in as a question for the ASPA conference this fall?
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