Gary Posted April 30, 2002 Posted April 30, 2002 a plan makes an amendment to the early ret factors. the age 55 factor is changed at 1/1/95 from 0.5 to 0.3. a person retires on 1/1/02. the plan makes no specific provision for protecting the old subsidy. at retirement the plan compares the 1/1/95 accd ben with a erf of 0.5 v. the 1/1/02 accd ben w/ a erf of 0.3. it turns out that the 1/1/02 accd ben w/ an erf of 0.3 is the larger one. and thus the plan says that the old benefit was preserved. the question is that w/ no specific provision as to how to handle the protected benefit is it reasonable to use their technique or s/ the benefit be the 1/1/95 accd ben reduced at 0.5 plus the accrual after 1/1/95 (1/1/02 accd ben less 1/1/95 accd ben, thus giving the same total accd ben at 1/1/02) using the 0.3 factor. clearly this would produce the largest benefit, but the plan was silent as to how to handle this. any comments? gary
Mike Preston Posted April 30, 2002 Posted April 30, 2002 Absent specific language to the contrary, my gut feel is that the result should be consistent with a wearaway approach. But I wouldn't be surprised if a participant had a different view. See if you can round up each and every piece of benefit communication that dealt with the change. There may be a surprise in there that would give you some guidance as to what was expected.
MGB Posted April 30, 2002 Posted April 30, 2002 I agree with Mike. The general default rule is a wearaway (as your calculations are doing); it takes additional affirmative language to create a fresh start adding two pieces together. Although there is no specific language concerning this amendment, the plan probably has a general statement somewhere in the plan following the language of 411(d)(6)(A), which is the basis for the default wearaway.
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