jkharvey Posted August 5, 2002 Posted August 5, 2002 The rule of parity applies only to a nonvested participant. I want to be certain I understand what is mean by nonvested participant. If a participant terminates with 60% vesting and receives a full distribution of the 60%, then rehires 15 years later, is he considered a "vested" or "nonvested" participant for purposes of rule of parity? I'm thinking he is a "vested" participant because he was vested at the time he terminated. Is this correct? If he is a "vested" participant, then rule of parity will not apply to him and he must be given credit for years of service prior to break and be allowed to participate retroactive after meeting 1 year eligibility. Am I correct here?
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted August 6, 2002 Posted August 6, 2002 I agree. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
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