Guest Cindy Kane Posted October 14, 2002 Posted October 14, 2002 Is it discrimination, if an employer pays 100% of the premium for dependent spouses who are not eligible for coverage under their employer and pay nothing for dependent spouses who are eligible for coverage under their employer but choose not to enroll. Thanks, Cindy
mroberts Posted October 14, 2002 Posted October 14, 2002 No, it's not discriminatory. More and more companies are setting up their health care contributions exactly the way you described.
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