chris Posted November 8, 2002 Posted November 8, 2002 Will amending a MPPP to a 0% of compensation allocation formula cause participants to be 100% vested? 411(d)(3) discontinuance of contributions appears to only apply to PSP's and not MPPP's. Also, Rev Rul 2002-42 holds that 100% vesting is not required where MPPP merges into a PSP. Big picture seems to be the same...... going from a required contribution to a discretionary contribution. Client has both a MPPP and a PSP. Client wants to freeze the MPPP and just utilize the PSP going forward.
kocak Posted November 11, 2002 Posted November 11, 2002 maybe, maybe not. My understanding is that freezing (amending to 0%) a MPPP does not automatically result in 100% vesting. If it is a freeze and a plan termination, then yes 100% vesting applies. With no formal plan termination, you still have to be careful that a partial termination has not occurred. This comes up when dealing with forfeitures, etc. I think it is referred to as a horizontal partial term. It is clear that you can freeze the MPPP contribution, and merge it into the PSP without 100% vesting, if that plan design makes sense in your case. michele
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