Guest Mike Spickard Posted November 21, 2002 Posted November 21, 2002 We have a potential client (DEF) that wants to max. fund a DB plan over 4 to 5 years but wants to take as little comp. as possible. The corp. will be new - effective 1/1/2003. The 415(B) limit (reduced for participation less than 10 years) at the retirement age of the participant is about $64,000. I would like to recommend that he pay himself a salary of $64,000 for 3 years to generate this benefit. However, there is the problem of the reduction in the 100% of pay limit for service less than 10 years. My question is: Can the Plan credit service with ABC, a prior unrelated (somewhat) employer, so that he does not get slammed by the 415(B) service reduction? Or does predecessor service credit apply strictly to eligibility and vesting? I say they are somewhat unrelated because the participant used to be an officer and minority shareholder (about 5%) of ABC, and ABC will be paying the new company (DEF) for consulting services.
Guest merlin Posted November 25, 2002 Posted November 25, 2002 Mike, what do you mean by "somewhat unrelated'?The 415 aggregation rules require aggregation of any enitities in which a person has >50% ownership. But if you have to aggregate the benefits you also get to aggregate the service/participation. See Q&A 8 of the 2002 ASPA IRS Q&As. Does this help?
Guest merlin Posted November 25, 2002 Posted November 25, 2002 Sorry ,I missed the 2nd half of your question. Looks like you're out of luck.
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