Guest mkqm07 Posted December 4, 2002 Posted December 4, 2002 A participant in a plan had an NRD of 8/1/99. The participant continued working until 10/31/00. Now the participant wants a distribution. I know how to figure the accrued benefit, but am having trouble deciding how to figure the lump sum distribution. Is the APR used at age 65 or at his current age? I researced my reference material and can't find anything, anywhere about it. Help.
mwyatt Posted December 4, 2002 Posted December 4, 2002 Typically APR at Deferred Retirement Age. What does your plan say about deferred retirement benefits? Greater of benefit computed as if LRD was NRD and actuarial equivalent of benefit at NRB? If so, the benefit reflects increase for deferral already.
Guest mkqm07 Posted December 4, 2002 Posted December 4, 2002 The document says greater of actual benefit and prior year benefit actually increased. So APR at current age is used, correct?
david rigby Posted December 4, 2002 Posted December 4, 2002 That sounds like the most likely scenario. But, is 415 an issue? If so, don't forget to check that lump sum limit. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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