Scott Posted May 6, 2003 Posted May 6, 2003 A DB plan acquires qualifying employer securities, and immediately after the acquisition the FMV of the securities does not exceed 10% of the FMV of the assets of the plan. Over time, the securities appreciate and the other plan assets depreciate, so that now the FMV of the securities exceeds 10% of plan assets. Must the plan divest itself of enough of the securities to get back below the 10% threshold?
david rigby Posted May 6, 2003 Posted May 6, 2003 Several prior discussion threads on this topic. For example: http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.p...ST&f=20&t=14565 http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.p...ST&f=22&t=18394 In general, you might the search feature (with keywords such as “qualifying employer”) http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.p...p?act=Search&f= I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Scott Posted May 6, 2003 Author Posted May 6, 2003 Thanks, but neither of those threads, nor anything my searches produced, answer my specific question. I was hoping it was a simple yes or no.
Kirk Maldonado Posted May 6, 2003 Posted May 6, 2003 My recollection, dating back almost 20 years ago, was that the DOL cut the employer some slack on this issue. Did you look at the regulations? Kirk Maldonado
Scott Posted May 6, 2003 Author Posted May 6, 2003 I did review the regulations, but they aren't too helpful. I think the answer is that divestiture is not required, but I'm just looking for some confirmation. ERISA Section 407(a)(1) prohibits a plan from holding non-qualifying employer securities. No problem here. 407(a)(2) provides that a plan may not acquire qualifying employer securities if immediately after the acquisition, the FMV of qualifying employer securities exceeds 10% of the FMV of plan assets. I don't believe this provision is violated because it prohibits the "acquisition" but not specifically the "holding" of qualifying employer securities greater than 10%. If the initial acquisition was less than 10%, this provision doesn't appear to be violated merely because the change in value of the securities and other plan assets now causes the FMV of the securities to exceed 10% of plan assets. 407(a)(3) and (4) apply to plans holding securities as of 1984 and 1979 (not applicable). Section 406(a)(2) prohibits a fiduciary from permitting a plan to hold any employer security if he knows or should know that holding such security violates Section 407(a). Obviously this means that a fiduciary cannot allow a plan to hold non-qualifying employer securities in violation of 407(a)(1), but I just want to make sure that this provision doesn't somehow impose a 10% "holding" limitation that's not otherwise present under 407(a)(2). Does this thinking sound right? Anything I'm missing?
david rigby Posted May 6, 2003 Posted May 6, 2003 Sorry if nothing was on point. I thought there was explicit regulatory statement that no divestiture was required. The answer is "no" (I think). I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest Harry O Posted May 7, 2003 Posted May 7, 2003 I agree with Pax. The DOL regulations apply the 10% test at the time of acquisition. You need to look at the regulations. I am at home without regs handy . . .
Guest asire2002 Posted May 7, 2003 Posted May 7, 2003 I know the question is whether holdings in excess of 10% is permitted under law, but I believe the plan document may also impact this situation: does the document permit it?
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