Christine Roberts Posted August 21, 2003 Posted August 21, 2003 A 501©(3) org. has maintained a non-ERISA 403(b) arrangement since 1990. In 2002 the plan is "restated" as an ERISA 403(b) plan with employer matching contributions. Is this in fact a restatement, or is it a creation of an entirely new plan? More specifically, should the plan document/Form 5500 identify the initial effective date as being in 2002 or 1990? I am thinking the former, but cannot recall any statute, regulation or guidance that is directly on point as to the correct answer.
Guest richardl Posted September 13, 2003 Posted September 13, 2003 I believe the 2002 date is correct and it is a new plan. Unable to provide the source. If I am wrong, please post. Rich
Guest jashendo Posted September 15, 2003 Posted September 15, 2003 Christine -- Unless the organization actually took action to terminate the plan and establish a new one (or if they did something like establish a second separate plan), the technically correct answer is that it is the same plan. As it happens, a 2002 amendment has had the effect of rendering the plan subject to ERISA and requiring 5500 filing, etc. If filing a return with the "initial return" box checked and an effective date of 1990 causes the DOL's computer to spit out a letter asking where prior years' returns are, you have a good explanation (i.e., plan has not been required to file for earlier years.)
mbozek Posted September 15, 2003 Posted September 15, 2003 why not treat this as (a) terminaton of non erisa Plan and replacement with ERISA Plan 001 since there are no formal procedures for terminating a 403(b) plan or (b) adoption of ERISA Plan 001 in 2002 which replaces the non ERISA plan. mjb
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