Guest cease Posted August 29, 2003 Posted August 29, 2003 I am not a health plan expert, so you might find this question to be very straightforward: An employer provides medical coverage for its employees through a group medical contract. The employer pays 100% of the premium for its employees. All employees with the exception of one have employee only coverage. Would it be discriminatory to charge the employee that has elected family coverage? The charge would be based on the premium to cover the family members only. Would it make a difference if the employee was an HCE or a NHCE? Thank you for your comments.
KIP KRAUS Posted August 30, 2003 Posted August 30, 2003 Employers often pay 100% of single coverage and require an employee contribution for family coverage. There is nothing discriminatory about that type of policy as long as it applies to all family contracts.
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