mwyatt Posted September 19, 2003 Posted September 19, 2003 Reviewing a proposal on a 412(i) plan (not prepared by us) and it appears that the salary figures used in the proposal were based on compensation excluding bonuses rather than total compensation. Is it allowed in a 412(i) plan to use a non-safe harbor definition of compensation? Obviously this lowers costs for everyone but the owners (who are both well over 200k).
Belgarath Posted September 19, 2003 Posted September 19, 2003 Yes, it's allowable. But if discriminatory, obviously it won't fly.
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