Guest guppy Posted November 18, 2003 Posted November 18, 2003 Client has not historically recognized the current year's liability gain/loss to determine the amortizable amount in the NPPC. For example: - The Fiscal year is calendar year - 12/31/02 disclosed PBO = $100 (based on 1/1/02 census) - 1/1/03 PBO = $110 (based on 1/1/03 census) - Therefore, liability loss = $10 Assuming PBO exceeds MRV, the corridor the client currently uses is: $10. I would argue that it's more appropriate to use $11. Valuation software supports my approach. Questions: Is the current approach even acceptable under GAAP? Is changing to my preferred method a change in accounting method I need to have approved by the auditors? Note that in my specific situation, by making the change I'm reducing the expense since I'm creating a larger corridor and deferring more of the outstanding loss. I'm not sure if these even has any impact on your opinion, but the interest cost is determined using the $110 PBO, ie. the new census is reflected in the service cost and the interest cost. Let me know your thoughts. Thanks.
Guest DBtech Posted November 18, 2003 Posted November 18, 2003 Guppy, I agree with your interpertation. See paragraph #32 of FAS 87. It specifically refers to "as of the beginning the year." In your example the 110 PBO is a BOY number and the 100 PBO is an EOY number.
david rigby Posted November 18, 2003 Posted November 18, 2003 11.00 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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