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A plan has provided for a contribution of 100,000 to an older owner in a cash balance. The owner is past normal retirement age at the end of the first plan year. The conversion of this contribution into an accrued benefit should be:

a Contribution divided by an APR at 66 (current age)

b Greater of prior accrued benefit actuarially increased or (a)

This particular plan is easy because it is the first year and the beginning balance was zero.

The normal accrual rate can now be determined as the benefit divided by compensation.

What about the most valuable accrual rate for this individual working past NRD??

Must the balance be converted to a J&S at plan rates and converted back using testing assumptions (like a normal person) OR can the most valuable rate equal the normal accrual rate for a person past NRD.

Thanks for any and all comments.

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