betheeg Posted February 4, 2004 Posted February 4, 2004 my client is 1 owner(100%) and 3 employees. one of the employees is her daughter. how can i name the allocation groups to exclude the daughter from being in the same group as her mother? how will she affect my testing? thanks for any help.
Archimage Posted February 4, 2004 Posted February 4, 2004 I would do something like "Owners" and then "Owners by Attribution". Your testing will not change. The daughter will still be tested as an HCE.
Tom Poje Posted February 4, 2004 Posted February 4, 2004 Archimage: maybe better to name owners by attribution owners not by attribution that way you do not overlap. if the first group is owners, that includes both mom and daughter while that is possible, and an additional contribution could be made to mom why not be as flexible as you can get
Archimage Posted February 4, 2004 Posted February 4, 2004 I understand your logic but is there truly a definition in the IRC that defines an owner of a business using attribution? I realize it for HCEs and keys but for an actual owner?
betheeg Posted February 9, 2004 Author Posted February 9, 2004 thank you for the reply. my next question is if i name the groups owners not by attribution and owners by attribution, can i allocate o% to the daughters group-owners by attribution? it would help me pass testing, and there's no gateway for hce's right?
Tom Poje Posted February 9, 2004 Posted February 9, 2004 correct (maybe) if plan is top-heavy, and top heavy goes to all participants then the daughter has to get the 3% rather than 0% - but not the gateway as she is an HCE.
AndyH Posted February 9, 2004 Posted February 9, 2004 betheeg, you should be able to give the daughter the same as the other employees and pass the testing. You may need to use a more advanced procedure than you are familiar with called component plan testing but it can be done. And yes you must watch for the top heavy issue that Tom points out.
betheeg Posted February 12, 2004 Author Posted February 12, 2004 one more thought.....if i use the top paid group election, would the daughter then be tested as an nhce? or does attribution count when figuring the more than 5% owner for top paid purposes?
Tom Poje Posted February 12, 2004 Posted February 12, 2004 top paid group only applies to comp, not 5% owners
betheeg Posted February 12, 2004 Author Posted February 12, 2004 right, but i read this in another post..... "Just to add - the top paid group election will not cause a more than 5% owner to be considered an NHCE. Since all three of your owners own atleast 10%, they will all be considered HCEs regardless of the top paid group election. " so, if i use the top paid in my situation, 4 ees.... i would have 1 hce but could i not consider daughter to be nhce because she is a more than 5% owner by attribution? thanks again...
Archimage Posted February 12, 2004 Posted February 12, 2004 You have HCEs two different ways: compensation and ownership. The top paid group election applies only to the compensation test. In your case you would use the top 20% of the employees (over $90,000). You would then have to use the ownership test. The daughter is an HCE under the ownership test.
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