Guest bkstett Posted February 13, 2004 Posted February 13, 2004 I've always understood that noncontributory health plans require that 100% of employees participate in the plan, even if they have other coverage. My client is arguing with me, and wants a cite to confirm my position. The group application (which they signed) does say this. What they are trying to do is pay 100% of premium for those who want (need) the health insurance and compensate the other employees in the form of wages. We've suggested the 125 plan approach, but they have objections to that as well. Is this a law, an underwriting practice, an insurance company rule, not a rule at all, or a figment of my imagination?
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