Gary Posted February 13, 2004 Posted February 13, 2004 Say we have a 5% owner receiving a RMD after age 70 1/2 as an annuity. If he actually retires at age 80 would he then be legally allowed to take a lump sum of his accrued benefit? 401(a)(9) gives me the impression that the RMD annuity cannot be increased for such a reason. Any thoughts?
flosfur Posted February 19, 2004 Posted February 19, 2004 RMD is the Required "Minimum". This does not stop a participant taking more than the RMD, if the plan allows in-service distribution. Since the whole idea of the RMD is to make sure taxes are not deferred forever, why would the IRS object to someone taking more than the RMD - more the better so they can collect higher taxes now than later? Which specific part of 401(a)(9) gives you the impression otherwise?
AndyH Posted February 19, 2004 Posted February 19, 2004 I think it depends on what the document says. What was the basis for the DB annuity? How was it calculated? Was it a regular distribution election, i.e. was a life annuity elected? If so, and a lump sum was also available, then I don't think that a lump sum later is an option because an election has already been made at the annuity starting date and the QJSA waiver period has expired. But again I think the answer depends on the specifics of the document, and what election was or was not made at the start date.
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