Guest Java Posted April 21, 2004 Posted April 21, 2004 Is year-to-year change in ben and comp limits other than from specific law change a plan amendment for funding purposes and be amortized over 30year?
david rigby Posted April 21, 2004 Posted April 21, 2004 My recollection is that the IRS has said Yes to this. Sorry, I cannot find the cite, but I think it was in the Gray Book. However, I suspect many actuaries may not do it that way, based on whether the change was material. Facts and circumstances for a particular sponsor will be relevant in that determination. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
MGB Posted April 21, 2004 Posted April 21, 2004 The IRS has said yes to this nearly every year in some session at the EA Meeting for as long as I remember (early 1980s they were already saying this). Their logic is as follows: In order to treat it as a loss, you must have assumed there would be an increase in the 415 limit (e.g., 0%) that was different than what actually happened. However, the IRS does not let you assume an increase in the 415 limit. Therefore, the only way you can recognize that the 415 went up is to treat it as a plan amendment. Even though it is an "automatic" plan amendment each year, it is nonetheless, an amendment. The higher limit did not exist before; it does now; but only through an amendment to the plan.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now