Guest terric Posted April 23, 2004 Posted April 23, 2004 Is it a prohibited transaction if an owner makes a contribution to his individual account under a profit sharing plan during the plan year, but does not make any contribution to his employees' accounts?
WDIK Posted April 23, 2004 Posted April 23, 2004 I think I would classify it as discriminatory. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
david rigby Posted April 23, 2004 Posted April 23, 2004 How about a violation of the plan terms? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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