DP Posted August 12, 2004 Posted August 12, 2004 I have a medical practice that consists of 6 docs and 43 staff. They started having financial problems this year and four docs quit. Two part-time employees (who were participants) quit this month since they were given an ultimatum of going full-time or quitting. I heard today that 1/2 of the staff will be laid off in November. I'm aware this would result in a partial plan termination, but what about the two part-time employees who quit in August? Would they become 100% vested due to the partial termination? Thanks.
david rigby Posted August 12, 2004 Posted August 12, 2004 Facts and circumstances. Given the statements as presented (still to be determined if they are facts), IMHO, the answer is “probably”. But circumstances change; difficult to determine in advance, and without more information. Several prior discussion threads on this topic. You might try reviewing: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?a...ation%26quot%3B I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
stephen Posted August 12, 2004 Posted August 12, 2004 I have seen this type of scenario argued both ways- The two employees terminated in August could become 100% vested or could be excluded from the 100% vesting depending on the attorney for the plan. Thus, my suggestion would be to refer the quesiton to the ERISA counsel for the plan.
MGB Posted August 12, 2004 Posted August 12, 2004 Prior to referral to an attorney, how about a reality check? How much would it cost (remember there is also some goodwill) to vest them? How much would it cost to pay the attorney fees to look at this? Somehow I think going the vesting route makes a lot more sense, even if you don't have to. Especially when the legal opinion should be "we can't tell without filing for a ruling from the IRS."
DP Posted September 24, 2004 Author Posted September 24, 2004 With a partial termination, who all becomes 100% vested? Only the terminating participants - or all participants? Thanks.
david rigby Posted September 24, 2004 Posted September 24, 2004 Only "affected" participants. That means those who are affected by whatever action/transaction gives rise to a partial termination. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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