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I received an e-mail from someone on Benefits link, but their e-mail does not work, so I can not respond directly.

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This is kind of a silly question, but I thought that provided you are using 100% of TWB, integration percentage had to be the lesser of 5.70% or the actual base percentage, but as I read Spencers, it seems to say it is the percentage is the lesser of 5.70 or 2 times.

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Basically it is the same thing, but one has to be careful about the terminolgy being used.

for example, a plan allocates 3% up to the TWB and 6% above the TWB would be ok (there is your 2 times formula)

algebraically 3% up to TWB + 6% > TWB but this is the same as

3% up to TWB + (3%>TWB + 3%>TWB) which can be rewritten as

(3% up to TWB + 3%> twb) + 3%>twb or

3% total comp + 3%> twb

hope that helps

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