Guest rfemmons Posted November 12, 2004 Posted November 12, 2004 Long story short: national tpa w/ standardized prototype plan sponsor is a small business. One of the owners have one loan that is kept by the tpa. He also has a second loan of about $30,000 amortized over 5 years w/ $400 monthly payment and a balloon payment at the end. Clearly not a qualified loan in fact appears to be an interest only loan. I am not sure why this second loan was ever granted. When I question the tpa, they state that they do not record keep that loan and need to get any information from the plan sponsor? Question is: can this be corrected without the participant having to pay taxes short of repaying? can this loan be reamoritized? Also, doesn't the tpa have some culpability here?
Belgarath Posted November 12, 2004 Posted November 12, 2004 The employer had better seek legal counsel. There are all kinds of potential problems here if it really is an impermissible loan - prohibited transactions, taxation, penalties, etc... - and I don't see an easy "fix" with no costs involved! As far as TPA "culpability," that's a facts and circumstances issue for the attorneys as well. It would seem that if the TPA didn't know, and had no reason to know, that the TPA can't/shouldn't be held responsible. Impossible to say from this end.
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