Guest lerieleech Posted December 2, 2004 Posted December 2, 2004 I would like to get an idea of how different people are interpreting "meaningful benefits" (I think that's the correct terminology) for the purposes of headcount in the 401(a)(26) test. I know IRS hasn't said what meaningful benefits are. What are your feelings on this? Have you heard anything that IRS has said informally? Thanks.
Guest merlin Posted December 2, 2004 Posted December 2, 2004 An accrual of 0.5% of compensation per year is considered meaningful, according to a Quality Assurance Memo from Paul Shultz in 6/02.
Guest lerieleech Posted December 2, 2004 Posted December 2, 2004 Thank you. It is a lot easier to deal with actual numbers.
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