FAPInJax Posted January 12, 2005 Posted January 12, 2005 A client has 21 non-excludable employees. Obviously, 40% is 8.4. Is there any rationale to enable 8 to be used (the regulation does not specify greater than, at least , etc.) when determining how many employees must be covered to pass 401(a)(26). Personally, I feel most comfortable with 9. Thanks for any and all responses.
david rigby Posted January 12, 2005 Posted January 12, 2005 http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=26640 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
rcline46 Posted January 12, 2005 Posted January 12, 2005 I concur. Here its the % that counts, and if you don't make it you fail.
FAPInJax Posted January 14, 2005 Author Posted January 14, 2005 Thanks for the response. Pax - how do you find those cites?? Any hints?? I tried using the search capability in BenefitsLink and did not find that one at all.
david rigby Posted January 14, 2005 Posted January 14, 2005 I find the Search feature to be very useful. In this case, I remembered there was a prior discussion thread on rounding, but did not remember whether it was exactly on point. So I used "round" or "rounding" as my search word. Using "401(a)(26)" as a search word may or may not be successful. The key is being creative with the search word, and trying more than one. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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