flosfur Posted July 14, 2005 Posted July 14, 2005 I have two situations with EOY valuation date. In both, there is no prior credit balance. Situation 1: A plan has assets of $250k @ 12/31/2004 which include advance contribution of $100k made during 2004. For S412, the interest credit on the advance contribution using the funding rate is $2,000. So, the funding assets are: S412: 250-100-2= $148k; S404=250-100=$150k. Normal costs under the individual Agg. method are: S412: $91,300; S404: $91,000. EAN NC + AL @ EOY for S412 and S404 = $201k. So the FFLs are: S412: 201-148 = $53k; S404: 201-150= $51k. What would be the maximum deductible contribution? $53k or $51k? ---------------------------------------------------- Situation 2: A plan has assets of $332k @ 12/31/2004 which include advance contribution of $165k made during 2004. For S412, the interest credit on the advance contribution using the funding rate is $3,000. So, the funding assets are: S412: 332-165-3= $164k; S404=332-165=$167k. Normal costs under the individual Agg. method are: S412: $173,000; S404: $172,500. What would be the maximum deductible contribution? $173,000 or $172,500? ---------------------- Higher numbers feel wrong but I cannot explain to myself why except that why should making advance contribution increase the deduction?
mwyatt Posted July 16, 2005 Posted July 16, 2005 You are of course following this to the end and subtracting from your 412 NC figures the interest credits. You might find that you end up at the 404 numbers...
Guest penman Posted July 16, 2005 Posted July 16, 2005 The contribution necessary to meet minimum funding standards is deductible. You cannot create or increase the credit balance though.
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