Guest pdxactuary Posted July 21, 2005 Posted July 21, 2005 DOL reg 29CRF 2530.204-2(d) prohibits double proration of defined benefit plan benefit accruals. I recently became the actuary for a plan that I believe has double proration issues in two places as follows: • Part-time employees for employees in the pension equity plan. When a participant works less than 2,000 hours, they get a prorated PEP accrual. For example, if they work 1,000 hours, and the PEP accrual % for their age + service would be 5% if they were full time employees, they will actually receive a 2.5% PEP accrual (5% x 1,000/2,000). The compensation that is counted towards their Final Average Pay is their part-time pay, (i.e. we are only counting pay actually received, and not pay as if they were a full-time employee). I believe this clearly is a double proration of benefit accruals. • This plan also allows for seasonal employees for the participants whom did not elect the PEP plan. These participants are covered by a traditional FAP plan. The issue is less clear for these participants, but I think the double proration exists. The seasonal employees typically work 9 months of the year, thereby earning 9/12 of a year of service as they earn a month of service for every month in which they have an hour of service. The seasonal employees seem to work full-time hours while employed. Final Average Pay is defined as “the average of the Participant’s Compensation over the consecutive 36 month period...”. For seasonal employees, I read this as looking at a 36 month period, and taking the average, rather than piecing together 36 months when they were actually receiving pay and then taking the average. For an example I have put together this hypothetical seasonal participant: Year Compensation Months worked 2004 $40,000 8 2003 $36,000 10 2002 $35,000 9 2001 $34,000 9 Method 1: Final Average Pay is the average of 2004, 2003 and 2002 pay, even though he only worked 27 months: (40,000 + 36,000 + 35,000)/36 = $3,083.33. This is the method I believe the current wording of the plan requires, and seems to be the method used in prior benefit estimations. Method 2: Final Average Pay is the average over all four years, as the total months worked add up to 36 months: (40,000+36,000+35,000+34,000)/36 = $4,027.78. I believe that Method 2 must be used to avoid double proration. The reason for my post is that I am getting push back from the attorney who drafted the plan as they were not aware of this issue. I believe that double proration exists in the in the first instance, and probably in the second. Any opionions? Thanks!
david rigby Posted July 23, 2005 Posted July 23, 2005 First bullet. I agree. Second bullet. I think so. Perhaps I'm so stupid that I just need more information. How about an example? BTW, what do you mean by "push back from the attorney"? Is the attorney blaming the messenger (you) for drawing attention to a plan provision that may conflict with the regs.? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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