Guest penman Posted August 20, 2005 Posted August 20, 2005 I am taking over a integrated DB plan on a prototype doc. The actuarial equivalence interest rate is 6.5%. My understanding is that since that is not within a range of 7.5% to 8.5%, the benefit formula does not qualify for the design based safe harbor exemption to general testing. Am I correct and, if so, where in the Code or Regs is that stated?
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted August 22, 2005 Posted August 22, 2005 You are getting some issues confused. The 7.5% - 8.5% interest rate requirement is the range required for general testing. An age-weighted DC plan that converts contributions using a interest rate within this range and a standard mortality table will pass general testing automatically (i.e. a psuedo safe harbor). However, there is no such requirement for a safe harbor integrated DB plan. Read 401(l). "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
AndyH Posted August 22, 2005 Posted August 22, 2005 Isn't this the old RR 71-446 issue? Payment prior to SSRA must be reduced by 1/15th or more (6.6666%)for 5 years, 1/130th thereafter. If penman's plan provides for an early retirement reduction of 6.50%, then with mortality the reduction must amount to at least 1/15th per year from SSSRA down. So it is probably ok. 1.401(l)-3(e)
JAY21 Posted August 22, 2005 Posted August 22, 2005 I think Penman is right, there is any issue there, although I don't remember if it necessarily took it out of the safe-harbor or if it just required an "override" using the interest rates he mentioned (7.5%-8.5%). However, when payable as a lump sum the integrated piece is still subject to 417(e) rates, which does legitimately overide the 7.5-8.5% (without taking it out of safe-harbor), so if the 417(e) rate is lower than the 6.5% then for lump sum purposes it effectively takes care of this issue I believe.
AndyH Posted August 22, 2005 Posted August 22, 2005 No, 417(e) is not relevant here; it is specifically exempted under 1.401(l)-3(b)(iii)(E).
JAY21 Posted August 22, 2005 Posted August 22, 2005 Andy, don't you still have to present value the integrated piece though using 417(e) rates ? or is that the part you are saying is exempt ?
AndyH Posted August 22, 2005 Posted August 22, 2005 I think it says you don't have to worry about 417(e) (the use of a rate below 1/15 solely to comply with 417(e) ) causing a violation. If the plan said the lump sum is the greater of the 417(e) lump sum and the lump sum using 5% GAR, then you would have a violation, because the fixed rate is not at least 6.6666%.
Guest penman Posted August 24, 2005 Posted August 24, 2005 Thank you for the responses. Some of the more popular prototype non-standardized integrated adoption agreements will state in the actuarial equivalence section that the interest rate "must be between 7.5% and 8.5%".
could be me maybe not Posted August 24, 2005 Posted August 24, 2005 penman, I just looked a series of corbel-based adoption agreements and the integrated standardized and non-standardized both require interest between 7.5 and 8.5%. The non-integrated ones do not.
Guest penman Posted August 24, 2005 Posted August 24, 2005 I know. I believe the thinking is that a lump sum cashout at, say 5%, would discriminate in favor of the higher paids, the ones with the biggest excess benefits. I realize the in the current interest rate environment 417(e) makes it a moot point unless someone is at the 415 limit.
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