flosfur Posted October 30, 2005 Posted October 30, 2005 An employer maintains a DB & a DC plan and the two plans are aggregated for 410(b). DB plan covers the Owner and owner's Spouse [spouse was included to pass 401(a)(26)]. Spouse took a nominal salary for plan yr 1 and accrued a benefit. For plan yr 2, the spouse took no wages and as a result did not accrue additional benefit during plan yr 2 (because her average comp was halved – benefit formula is flat % with fractional accrual). For 401(a)(26), did the spouse benefit under the plan for plan yr 2?
SoCalActuary Posted October 31, 2005 Posted October 31, 2005 You might get away with it, but I doubt it would survive an IRS actuary's audit. I would add a provision to include a minimal additional benefit for the spouse.
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