Guest mickiemurphy Posted May 31, 2006 Posted May 31, 2006 I have a closely held c-corp with several 30% owners. They are interested in starting an ESOP. One of the 30% owners would like to sell an equivalent of 5% of company stock to a new ESOP to start the plan. He would not be able to take the 1042 election. I have several questions. Is there a problem with the ESOP starting out with such a small percentage of outstanding stock? Would the 30%, now 25% owner be prohibited from receiving allocations of stock if there is no 1042 election? Would the employee-son of the selling owner be prohibited from receiving an allocation of stock if there is no 1042 election by the father?
stephen Posted May 31, 2006 Posted May 31, 2006 If there is not a 1042 election the now 25% owner and the son would be allowed to share in the allocation of those shares. There is not a problem with the ESOP starting with a small number of shares.
BeckyMiller Posted June 6, 2006 Posted June 6, 2006 You did not describe how large a payroll base you have for this company. I agree with stephen's remarks, but just wanted to note that there may be a problem in getting capital gain treatment for the seller, if there is a very small payroll base. See Rev. Proc. 87-22 and a bunch of PLRs that were issued under this procedure.
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