Guest Grumpy456 Posted June 12, 2006 Posted June 12, 2006 Corporations X and Y constitute a management affiliated service group as defined by Code § 414(m)(5). Corporation X sponsors a new comparability plan. Participation in X's plan has not been extended to employees of Corporation Y. Smith is an employee of Corporation Y and owns 7% of Corporation Y's stock. Smith, if employed by Corporation X, would be a participant in X's plan. For purposes of the ratio percentage test, Smith will be treated as a nonexcludable, nonbenefitting employee. However, is Smith an HCE or not? Smith owns 7% of Corporation Y, but owns no part of the plan sponsor, Corporation X. Thanks in advance for your thoughts.
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted June 12, 2006 Posted June 12, 2006 He owns more than 5% of a related member. That makes him an HCE. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
Earl Posted June 16, 2006 Posted June 16, 2006 I have always wondered does he own 7% or 3.5%? He owns 7% of 200%, doesn't he? Thanks CBW
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted June 16, 2006 Posted June 16, 2006 No, he owns 7% for HCE determination purposes. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
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