Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted July 11, 2006 Posted July 11, 2006 I am curious if there are different opinions on this question. If a change in pre-retirement interest from the previous valuation is made, do you think that interest rate is in effect for the entire plan year or starting with the valuation date? I understand it's a moot question for a BOY valuation date. But for an EOY valuation it does have an effect, so I am curious if everyone has the same opinion. I will withhold my opinion for now. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
david rigby Posted July 11, 2006 Posted July 11, 2006 Gray Book 2006-6 Funding: End of Year Valuation Dates A calendar year plan has a valuation date that is the last day of the plan year. If the valuation interest assumption is changed for the 12/31/2005 valuation, what interest rate is used to roll forward the credit balance and amortization bases from 12/31/2004: the 2004 interest rate or the 2005 interest rate? RESPONSE The 2005 interest rate is used. The change in interest rate applies for the entire plan year. Copyright © 2006, Enrolled Actuaries Meeting All rights reserved by Enrolled Actuaries Meeting. Permission is granted to print or otherwise reproduce a limited number of copies of the material on the diskette for personal, internal, classroom, or other instructional use, on the condition that the foregoing copyright notice is used so as to give reasonable notice of the copyright of the Enrolled Actuaries Meeting. This consent for free limited copying without prior consent of the Enrolled Actuaries Meeting does not extend to making copies for general distribution, for advertising or promotional purposes, for inclusion in new collective works, or for sale or resale. BTW, I agree with the IRS opinion here. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted July 11, 2006 Author Posted July 11, 2006 This is how I do it as well, but I was seeing if others did it differently. Does anyone still care to admit they do it differently despite the unofficial opinion? "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
david rigby Posted July 11, 2006 Posted July 11, 2006 Blinky, do you agree that supporting the other position would be difficult, algebraically? For example, think about the perspective of determining an amortization payment, rather than the simple process of rolling forward the CB. Determine that payment with two different interest rates? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
AndyH Posted July 11, 2006 Posted July 11, 2006 I thought that people with white robes throw nets at people that still do end of year valuations.
SoCalActuary Posted July 11, 2006 Posted July 11, 2006 For the majority of the small plans I handled last year, End Of Year Valuation For the majority of the larger plans, Beg Year Valuation. For the pre-retirement interest rate, I practice on the basis that the selected pre-retirement rate applies for the entire year. Even if we get stuck with the graded rates of proposed pension reform, there will still be a single interest rate for maintenance of bases, FSA and reconciliation accts.
zimbo Posted July 12, 2006 Posted July 12, 2006 I am curious if there are different opinions on this question. If a change in pre-retirement interest from the previous valuation is made, do you think that interest rate is in effect for the entire plan year or starting with the valuation date? I understand it's a moot question for a BOY valuation date.But for an EOY valuation it does have an effect, so I am curious if everyone has the same opinion. I will withhold my opinion for now. I have always believed that the change in rate is for the entire year rather than just as of the val date. I know that there are differing opinions on this. For example, I believe that Relius DB software, treats the change as occuring only on the val date, so contribution made during the plan year are credited at the old val interest rate. Don't know if there is any definitive guidance though.
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