Guest fambrak Posted October 16, 2006 Posted October 16, 2006 OK, I am trying to get the procedures for processing RMD's updated. I have been looking at the processing of these calculations for some time. I appears that the organization that I work for has been taking the RMD out of after-tax balances (when processing lump-sum withdrawals). Therefore, we are not withholding any taxes from the distribution. This seems incorrect since the whole purpose of the RMD is to force an individual to withdraw a portion of their account and pay taxes on it. Any thoughts?
AndyH Posted October 16, 2006 Posted October 16, 2006 Only lump sums that are eligible for rollover treatment are subject to mandatory tax withholding, and min distribs are not eligible for rollover.
mwyatt Posted October 17, 2006 Posted October 17, 2006 "I appears that the organization that I work for has been taking the RMD out of after-tax balances..." Can you clarify this a bit? Andy's correct in that RMDs are not subject to the UCA '92 mandatory 20% withholding. Just remember that withholding and taxes due are two different animals.
Mike Preston Posted October 17, 2006 Posted October 17, 2006 There is an old pronouncement (83-16 I think, and I'm not sure, but maybe an announcement, but possibly a revenue ruling - I don't have time to look it up) that basically says that with respect to account balances attributed to periods after 1983 the plan has to distribute pre- and post- tax accounts on a pro-rata basis. With respect to pre1984 amounts, the plan can choose any method it likes. The election is a plan level election and therefore applies to all in the plan. If you don't have any balances that old, then I think the general rule is that the distribution is supposed to be pro-rata. If the distribution, however, is from all post-tax monies, there is nothing to tax and therefore nothing to withhold (even voluntarily). Can anybody tell me whether my ancient memory is failing me on this issue?
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