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Posted

May be taking over Plan that uses Individual Aggregate Funding Method, which has a credit balance of $750,000. Looks like 404 Normal Cost was ignored in past as contributions were simply put in as long as they did not exceed the FFL (resulting in the noted credit balance). By looking at past Schedule Bs, there appears to be about $1,000,000 in contribution that would be nondeductible. With this in mind, ...

1) Should prior valuations be redone? If so, must original actuarial assumptions be used? (It appears that a lower interest rate could eliminate the nondeductible contributions.)

2) Should past be "ignored" with future valuations simply reflecting the massive credit balance?

3) Should this Plan be reported to any agency?

Thoughts on this problem will be greatly appreciated.

Having braved the blizzard, I take a moment to contemplate the meaning of life. Should I really be riding in such cold? Why are my goggles covered with a thin layer of ice? Will this effect coverage testing?

QPA, QKA

Posted

Run?

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted

I guess...

Having braved the blizzard, I take a moment to contemplate the meaning of life. Should I really be riding in such cold? Why are my goggles covered with a thin layer of ice? Will this effect coverage testing?

QPA, QKA

Posted

Contact the prior firm and ask what the basis of the amounts contributed were. It wouldn't surprise me to see that the deductions were based on the current liability limitation and that the current liability on the Schedule B was determined at a rate that is inconsistent with the rate that was used for maximum deductible purposes.

But you won't know unless you ask.

Guest toubledea
Posted

Thanks to all, but as the troubled EA in the tagline, I

think I found the answer from another source (PIX).

It seems that the DB Answer Book explanation of this

was misread by me. In the CCH explanation using the

RPA CL limit for FFL applied to 'all' plans effective

after 12/31/01, whereas apparently it applied only to over

100 non-multiemployer plans before.

Assuming this is correct, it is interesting how this

could apply to one person plans looking to

maximize deductions.

Posted

It may be helpful, but probably not very helpful with the amounts you were talking about. Often in small plans the RPA rate is higher than the funding rate so the RPA liability could actually be less than funding liability. Either way, prior to 2006 it is unliking that the unfunded RPA will solve their deduction problems.

The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.

Posted

Without seeing the metrics I think it is impossible to handicap the result. I can envision many circumstances where a $750,000 credit balance would be copacetic. You need to look at the details before making a determination.

Guest toubledea
Posted

The val rate was 8% and I presume the RPA was within the limits.

Don't really want to delve too deeply now but it seems that

the limit would apply without taking into account accruals for

HCEs in the last two years. This would seem difficult to

program and is something I will check. It's the Relius

program and it would be impressive if they got it right.

Since the val interest rate was 8% I don't now think

that there will be a deduction problem; also because

client didn't put in maximum RPA limit.

Posted
Assuming this is correct, it is interesting how this could apply to one person plans looking to

maximize deductions.

The val rate was 8% and I presume the RPA was within the limits

This seems very strange that the previous actuary would be using 8% on a one life plan where maximizing deductions was the game. I may be heading over to PAX's wagon.

The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.

Posted

The two year rule does not apply to benefits accrued in the last two years. Instead, it applies to all liability to HCE's associated with amendments made within the two year period immediately preceding the first day of the plan year. Big difference.

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