nancy Posted October 30, 2006 Posted October 30, 2006 If you have a plan that covers only salaried employees and the employer does not track hours worked, must you state an equivalency for hours in the document? Is it sufficient to know that all employees are paid for x hours per week (e.g. 37 1/2) without actually tracking the hours?
QDROphile Posted October 30, 2006 Posted October 30, 2006 It is best to state the equivalencies in the document, then nobody will have a good excuse for making the mistake of trying to use 37 1/2 hours a week or 2080 hours a year for purposes that are governed by legal requirements for hours.
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