Guest mingblue Posted January 8, 2007 Posted January 8, 2007 I have a "frozen" plan whose termination date is anticipated to be 4/1/07 - the plan year runs 7/1-6/30 - the client purchased annuities for all inactives this past December - we are just now doing the 7/1/06 actuarial valuation. I anticipate 2 bases being created as of 7/1/06 - (1) an experience base determined using the funding assumptions in place as of 7/1/05 and (2) using the annuity values for the inactive liability as of 7/1/06 & creating an assumption change base - naturally the final charges will be pro-rated for the 9 month period up to the date of termination. It has been suggested that I only value the active life liability as of 7/1/06 and, assuming I change assumptions to anticipate their elections and respective liability as of the termination date of 4/1/07, make the before/after assumption change liability for this group my "assumption change" base. Question : Which is the more actuarially correct way of creating the assumption change base ? do both methods produce the same base ?
david rigby Posted February 15, 2007 Posted February 15, 2007 replies here: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=34377 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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