Guest crosseyetester Posted February 5, 2007 Posted February 5, 2007 A company went out of business and the stock has been valued at $0. They have come to this decision to redeem all allocated shares of the stock in the ESOP for $500. I don't know why. Would there be a discrimination issue? Should that $500 instead be treated as a cash contribution. Those who were not eligible would get nothing for their shares.
A Shot in the Dark Posted February 5, 2007 Posted February 5, 2007 The $500.00 value may have something to do with the PAR Value of the stock. You would need to look at the original documentation regarding the stock issuance. Look at all of the facts and circumstances, but if the Plan Trustees are accepting $500.00 for the redemption of employer stock that is valued at zero, the $500.00 would not be treated as an employer contribution.
namealreadyinuse Posted February 6, 2007 Posted February 6, 2007 Search for posts on restorative payments. IMHO, they would only be are doing it to cover their fiduciary butts.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now