Guest Happy Actuary Posted April 26, 2007 Posted April 26, 2007 I do not have a lot of recent multi-er experience, but I was wondering - is it common for plans to use one rate for funding, but a different interest rate assumption for w/drawal liability? If so, does this make sense? thx!!
JanetM Posted April 26, 2007 Posted April 26, 2007 In my experience with SMW national plan, they use the plans assumed rate of return on assets for calculating the liability. JanetM CPA, MBA
Effen Posted April 26, 2007 Posted April 26, 2007 Do a search on the multiemployer board and you should find a few threads. I would say it is common to use different assumptions for w/drawal liability, although it is by no means the norm. Segal uses a method that uses different rates depending on whether or not they are funded. They also use a rate that is tied to the PBGC rates. If you do a little poking around, you should be able to find a write-up. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
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