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Posted

If a plan is effective 1/1/2002 and freezes benefit accruals as of 12/31/2006 (but is NOT terminated) and terminates as of 12/31/2007, what is the fractional reduction in the 415 dollar limit?

Is it 5/10 or 6/10?

Guest Guest99
Posted

I believe 6/10 is the correct answer. See the final 415 regs:

"A participant is credited with a year of participation (computed to fractional parts of a year) for each accrual computation period for which the participant is credited with at least the number of hours of service (or period of service if the elapsed time method is used for benefit accrual purposes) required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period . . ."

As I read this, it does not say that you must accrue a benefit, only that you must satisfy the hours requirement for a benefit accrual. The language would be different (and simpler) if they wanted to link the 415 YOP with benefit accrual. I'll be interested to see if I have persuaded AndyH, and what others have to say.

Posted

I believe 6/10 is the correct answer. See the final 415 regs:

"A participant is credited with a year of participation (computed to fractional parts of a year) for each accrual computation period for which the participant is credited with at least the number of hours of service (or period of service if the elapsed time method is used for benefit accrual purposes) required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period . . ."

As I read this, it does not say that you must accrue a benefit, only that you must satisfy the hours requirement for a benefit accrual. The language would be different (and simpler) if they wanted to link the 415 YOP with benefit accrual. I'll be interested to see if I have persuaded AndyH, and what others have to say.

Posted

The new 415 regs provide no different language than what Notice 87-21 did previously on this topic. One could argue it's impossible to be credited with at least the number of hours of service required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period if the plan is frozen. Because no matter if the participant worked 1 hour, 1,000 hours or whatever, they didn't accrue an additional benefit.

Anyone want to look up a Gray Book answer on this?

"What's in the big salad?"

"Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."

Posted

I found nothing in the Gray Book on point.

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Posted

Can I change my mind again, but only 50%? Now I know where my initial comment came from.

IRS audit guidelines. Bold is my emphasis.

"In determining a participant’s years of participation for these purposes,

Q&A-7 of Notice 87-21 provides that a participant is credited with a year

of participation (computed to fractional parts of a year) for each accrual

computation period for which the following conditions are met:

a. The participant is credited with at least the number of hours of

service (or period of service if the elapsed time method is used for

benefit accrual purposes) required under the terms of the plan in

order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period, and

b. The participant is included as a plan participant under the eligibility

provisions of the plan for at least one day of the accrual computation

period.

c. If these two conditions are met, the portion of a year of participation

credited to the participant is equal to the amount of benefit accrual

service credited to the participant for such accrual computation

period. Thus, where the terms of a plan provide that a participant

with 50 hours of service earns a year of service for benefit accrual

purposes, a participant with 50 hours of service could be credited

with a year of participation for purposes of IRC 415(b)(5).

Posted

This interpretation makes sense. If a plan had a strange provision that say only counted the first 8 years of service for benefit determination purposes, the 415 phase-in would still accrue over 10 years so it's possible some participant could accrue benefits beyond 8 years while others accrue their benefits over 8 years.

Any comments?

The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.

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