zimbo Posted May 1, 2007 Posted May 1, 2007 If a plan is effective 1/1/2002 and freezes benefit accruals as of 12/31/2006 (but is NOT terminated) and terminates as of 12/31/2007, what is the fractional reduction in the 415 dollar limit? Is it 5/10 or 6/10?
AndyH Posted May 1, 2007 Posted May 1, 2007 5 You need to earn a year of accrual service as defined under the plan.
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted May 1, 2007 Posted May 1, 2007 So if you need an extra year for 415 purposes, instead of freezing the plan, the plan should adopt a really small formula, and then freeze at termination? Cite please.
Guest Guest99 Posted May 1, 2007 Posted May 1, 2007 I believe 6/10 is the correct answer. See the final 415 regs: "A participant is credited with a year of participation (computed to fractional parts of a year) for each accrual computation period for which the participant is credited with at least the number of hours of service (or period of service if the elapsed time method is used for benefit accrual purposes) required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period . . ." As I read this, it does not say that you must accrue a benefit, only that you must satisfy the hours requirement for a benefit accrual. The language would be different (and simpler) if they wanted to link the 415 YOP with benefit accrual. I'll be interested to see if I have persuaded AndyH, and what others have to say.
David MacLennan Posted May 1, 2007 Posted May 1, 2007 I believe 6/10 is the correct answer. See the final 415 regs: "A participant is credited with a year of participation (computed to fractional parts of a year) for each accrual computation period for which the participant is credited with at least the number of hours of service (or period of service if the elapsed time method is used for benefit accrual purposes) required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period . . ." As I read this, it does not say that you must accrue a benefit, only that you must satisfy the hours requirement for a benefit accrual. The language would be different (and simpler) if they wanted to link the 415 YOP with benefit accrual. I'll be interested to see if I have persuaded AndyH, and what others have to say.
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted May 2, 2007 Posted May 2, 2007 David, That has been our interpretation also. However, we have only had the need to utilize that with a few clients, and it's never been brought up in an IRS examination with any of them.
AndyH Posted May 2, 2007 Posted May 2, 2007 Looking at this again, I agree. I should have checked rather than going from memory. 6/10 is correct.
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted May 2, 2007 Posted May 2, 2007 The new 415 regs provide no different language than what Notice 87-21 did previously on this topic. One could argue it's impossible to be credited with at least the number of hours of service required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period if the plan is frozen. Because no matter if the participant worked 1 hour, 1,000 hours or whatever, they didn't accrue an additional benefit. Anyone want to look up a Gray Book answer on this? "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
david rigby Posted May 2, 2007 Posted May 2, 2007 I found nothing in the Gray Book on point. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
AndyH Posted May 2, 2007 Posted May 2, 2007 Can I change my mind again, but only 50%? Now I know where my initial comment came from. IRS audit guidelines. Bold is my emphasis. "In determining a participant’s years of participation for these purposes, Q&A-7 of Notice 87-21 provides that a participant is credited with a year of participation (computed to fractional parts of a year) for each accrual computation period for which the following conditions are met: a. The participant is credited with at least the number of hours of service (or period of service if the elapsed time method is used for benefit accrual purposes) required under the terms of the plan in order to accrue a benefit for the accrual computation period, and b. The participant is included as a plan participant under the eligibility provisions of the plan for at least one day of the accrual computation period. c. If these two conditions are met, the portion of a year of participation credited to the participant is equal to the amount of benefit accrual service credited to the participant for such accrual computation period. Thus, where the terms of a plan provide that a participant with 50 hours of service earns a year of service for benefit accrual purposes, a participant with 50 hours of service could be credited with a year of participation for purposes of IRC 415(b)(5).
David MacLennan Posted May 2, 2007 Posted May 2, 2007 The same fractional Year of Participation rule is in the final 415 regs (applies when benefit service can be accrued in fractional amounts).
Andy the Actuary Posted May 7, 2007 Posted May 7, 2007 This interpretation makes sense. If a plan had a strange provision that say only counted the first 8 years of service for benefit determination purposes, the 415 phase-in would still accrue over 10 years so it's possible some participant could accrue benefits beyond 8 years while others accrue their benefits over 8 years. Any comments? The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
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