FAPInJax Posted December 7, 2007 Posted December 7, 2007 Is changing a 412i plan to a traditionally funded DB considered to be a change in funding method?
SoCalActuary Posted December 7, 2007 Posted December 7, 2007 It actually means that the actuary is adopting a method, since the 412i is a mandated calculation that does not provide the actuary with choices. You could argue that this allows you one free pass to a change in method within 5 years. However, the non-412i will be stuck with one method in 2008 in any event.
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