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Permissive Aggregation of Beginning of Year Valuation Date DB Plan with 401(k) Plan


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Guest Jcarolan
Posted

I have a client that currently has two plans, a defined beneft (PBGC Covered) and a 401(k) Plan.

The defined benefit plan is currently an end of year valuation.

The two plans are permissively aggregated for 401(a)(4) testing purposes.

The client also likes to fund their DB plan on a weekly basis and would like to know their current year contribution by December 1 of the current year, so I am thinking of switching to a beginning of year valuation date to accomdate them, and possibly make AFTAP Compliance less of a mess.

Are there any issues with permissively aggregating a BOY val DB plan with a 401(k) Plan?

Joseph Carolan

Posted

None, really. The valuation never had anything to do with the non-discrimination testing anyway, did it?

Posted

There are employer (non-matching) contributions to the 401(k) plan, right? Otherwise you would be permissively aggregating oil and vinegar for no reason.

Posted

Even I presumed there were ER contributions of some kind (SH, etc.) going into the 401k plan! If not, you are right, of course.

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