jkharvey Posted March 11, 2008 Posted March 11, 2008 The plan wants to provide for different allocation groups for the two doctors. One would be physicians over age 45 and the other would be physicians 45 and under. Can we do this? I've always been wary of using age for things like exclusions from participation and such. Is it a problem for Xtested allocation groups? Thank you.
GMK Posted March 11, 2008 Posted March 11, 2008 Apart from everything else, age 45 may not be the best choice. Just be careful not to discriminate against employees who are age 40 and older with regard to the priviledges of employment.
J Simmons Posted March 11, 2008 Posted March 11, 2008 I agree with GMK, and would add that you should not discriminate against employees who are age 40 and older with regard to the privile[]ges of employment vis-a-vis those that are younger than 40.If both doctors are age 40 or older, then ADEA should not be a concern. If one is over 40 and the other under 40, you should have no problem if the older one always receives a company contribution that is as great as the younger one, both when measured as percentages of current compensation and EBARs. John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
GMK Posted March 11, 2008 Posted March 11, 2008 Thanks, John, for pulling me off the ledge (oops). Should jkharvey's doctors be concerned with any factors other than ADEA for age-based allocation groups?
J Simmons Posted March 11, 2008 Posted March 11, 2008 The IRS has issued d-ltrs to plans that use age criteria as the OP set forth. So from a tax qualification perspective, probably no problem as long as cross-testing passes. Other anti-discrimination laws should be considered too. Race, religion, gender, etc. John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
jkharvey Posted March 11, 2008 Author Posted March 11, 2008 Thank you all so much. It is a bit comforting to know that IRS has actually issued letters where age was the basis for classification. I realize that doesn't mean they would do it for every plan.
ak2ary Posted March 19, 2008 Posted March 19, 2008 You have to be careful that categories based on age or service classifications do not violate 410(a), by making a zero contribution Consider a PSP that has different allocations for the following groups Under age 30 Ages 30-39 ages 40 -49 Ages 50 -59 Age 59 and over There is nothing wrong with making different allocations to each of these groups, as long as if any group gets an allocation, the first group gets an allocation. Otherwise you have in essence set up an effective age requirement of 30 In your example, if in one year the empployer chose to give a 0 allocation to the younger doctor, while the older doctor got a contribution, the IRS would say that you have an impermissible age requirement because Doctor Two would have benefitted under the plan if he were older than 45. This is the case even though Doctor Two is likely am HCE and the design likely passes nondiscrim testing
Belgarath Posted November 14, 2008 Posted November 14, 2008 Reviving an old post here. I just saw a plan using age as one of the primary factors in the groups, and it makes me squeamish, yet I couldn't fnd any specific prohibition. Can you elaborate a bit re the 410(a) comment? As long as the plan has allowable age and service requirements, why is there a 410(a) issue? Have you seen a real situation where the IRS has asserted this, or do you have any sort of a citation? Thanks!
AndyH Posted November 17, 2008 Posted November 17, 2008 Belgarath, 1.410(a) has some good examples. A simple one, exaggerated but on point: Employer A establishes a plan that covers employees after they retire and does not cover current employees. Any employee who works past age 60 is treated as retired. This plan effectively has an age 60 age requirement, in violation of 410(a)'s 21 limit.
ak2ary Posted January 7, 2009 Posted January 7, 2009 Or look at my allocation groups above Assume the employer elects to make different contributions for each group It can elect to make a zero contribution for some groups if it wants but if it makes a zero for the first group, in order to benefit you need to be at least 30 That violates the 410(a) age service rules Same thing if you had service based classifications and gave contributions to everybody except those with less than 5 years or something like that
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