Medusa Posted April 16, 2008 Posted April 16, 2008 We are taking over a cash balance plan where the benefits do not satisfy the Paul Shultz meaningful benefit standard for 401(a)(26). Has anyone had any success arguing with the IRS that benefits which do not meet this standard are still meaningful for purposes of 401(a)(26)? Any experience you can relate would be helpful. Medusa
Effen Posted April 17, 2008 Posted April 17, 2008 Has the IRS raised the issue or are you just trying to prepare if they do? Does the plan have a determination letter? The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
SoCalActuary Posted April 17, 2008 Posted April 17, 2008 We are taking over a cash balance plan where the benefits do not satisfy the Paul Shultz meaningful benefit standard for 401(a)(26). Has anyone had any success arguing with the IRS that benefits which do not meet this standard are still meaningful for purposes of 401(a)(26)? Any experience you can relate would be helpful.Medusa The details of your plan are important. What interest rates are used to test this? Did the plan change because of lower rates? What interest rate are you using to project the account balances? Do you have authority to use a higher rate?
AndyH Posted April 17, 2008 Posted April 17, 2008 "What interest rate are you using to project the account balances? Do you have authority to use a higher rate?" That is an interesting comment. Maybe that could be an 11-(g) correction, a "bonus" interest rate. Good stab at those "market rate" requirees.
Medusa Posted April 17, 2008 Author Posted April 17, 2008 Effen: The prior TPA/actuary did apply for a DL, and it's still under review at the Service. They did not request a ruling specific to 401(a)(26) compliance, although we're going to suggest they amend the application to do so. The actuary seems to think they can make the case that a .5% contribution (rather than benefit) rate can be meaningful. SoCal: There was no change in the plan or in the interest rate. From what I can tell the interest rates used for testing are just the 7.5%-8.5% corridor. I think the actuary's position that these benefits are meaningful is based on "gut", not on any actual numerical demonstration or testing. Must be nice.
SoCalActuary Posted April 17, 2008 Posted April 17, 2008 Your testing assumption is in the 7.5 to 8.5 corridor. Of course, 8.5% is better for making the account look like a bigger amount. But what interest rate are you using to project the CB benefit to normal retirement? That answer will determine the monthly benefit at NRD, when combined with your testing APR.
ak2ary Posted April 18, 2008 Posted April 18, 2008 At least the remedial amendment period is still running. Most of the plans I have seen run into this failed due to an inordinately early NRA. In those cases, if you amended the NRA to comply with the final phased retirement regs the issue disappeared... but a half percent pay credit is pretty tough. It seems you have two choices...raise your interest credit (which will cost more money in the long run) or take advantage of the remedial amendment period to raise the previous pay credits. On audit, if the IRS raises the issue, my experience is that they are not flexible on the .5% accrual standard... at all.
Medusa Posted April 22, 2008 Author Posted April 22, 2008 Thank you Ak2ary. We're asking the prior actuary to amend their DL request to include a 401(a)(26) determination so that it can be corrected during the RAP. I'm not sure the client would have taken the plan with the increased accruals that I am pretty sure will be required, so this will likely not be the end of it.
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