Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted May 22, 2008 Posted May 22, 2008 I am curious how others are doing the calculations when the assumed payout is a lump sum. 415 benefit limit BOY = 18,500 415 lump sum limit BOY = 165,000 Plan benefit (w/o limiting to 415) = 19,500 Plan benefit lump sum (again w/o limiting benefit to 415) = 168,000 Plan benefit lump sum (if first limiting benefit to 415 of 18,500) = 159,400 So the question is would you limit the benefit to the 415 benefit limit and then take the lump sum value of that and compare it to the 415 lump sum (i.e. 159,400 vs. 165,000 = 159,400)? Or would you just compare lump sum limits (i.e. 168,000 vs. 165,000 = 165,000)? "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
Mike Preston Posted May 23, 2008 Posted May 23, 2008 I think you have to use the $165,000. Otherwise you have assumed a benefit that is, shall we say, "wrong"? Strong letter to follow. I think it depends on your assumptions. If you are assuming that an individual is 100% likely to take a lump sum and the lump sum payable from the plan is $165,000 (no matter how one gets there), then your valuation needs to reflect that.
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