Guest newFSA Posted July 24, 2008 Posted July 24, 2008 The MRD paid in 2007 (for accrual in 2006) for a participant was incorrect. It was calculated using the account balance method which I believe is now inappropriate for use after 2005. Whats the remedial action for incorrect MRD distributions. What kind of taxes/penalties etc apply? Thanks
Guest Sieve Posted July 24, 2008 Posted July 24, 2008 Without figuring out why the MRD might have been incorrect, it can be corrected by the plan sponsor through a filing with the IRS under the EPCRS Voluntary Correction Program (VCP). The VCP filing also can request that the 50% excise tax be waived.
AndyH Posted July 24, 2008 Posted July 24, 2008 Regardless of what you do with the penalty, correcting it is the first step, IMHO. Has anyone ever heard of the IRS actually assessing the 50% penalty? I have not.
tymesup Posted July 26, 2008 Posted July 26, 2008 ASPPA Journal, summer issue, interview with Joyce Kahn, excise tax under 4974 for 401(a)(9) violation - "In the case of employees other than 10% owners, if an employer requests it, we automatically waive it. In the case of a 10% owner, then we need some justification ..."
Guest Sieve Posted July 28, 2008 Posted July 28, 2008 For what it's worth, I have applied for and received a waiver of the excise tax for a 100% owner of a company (with about 75 employees) under VCP. He missed MRDs for 9 straight years!
Guest jjren Posted August 22, 2008 Posted August 22, 2008 For what it's worth, I have applied for and received a waiver of the excise tax for a 100% owner of a company (with about 75 employees) under VCP. He missed MRDs for 9 straight years! Sieve, I realize this is an old thread, but if you're out there could you share your explanation for the cause of the MRD failure. I have been asked to prepare a VCP filing for a substantial owner who missed 6 years of payments. Thanks
Guest Sieve Posted August 22, 2008 Posted August 22, 2008 jjren - Sent description offline through PM.
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