Lou S. Posted August 4, 2008 Posted August 4, 2008 We have a client who holds property/mortgages in his profit sharing plan. His wife accidently paid a bill related to one of these properties with personal funds. The owner wants to reimburse his wife from the Plan assets. This is a one person plan. Is prohibited transaction? If so is it correctable under one of the IRS programs or can they just self-correct and document the error.
Guest Sieve Posted August 19, 2008 Posted August 19, 2008 I would think that if the Plan reimburses wife, then wife's payment was, in fact, a loan to the plan. Since she is a disqualified person (IRC Section 4975(e)(2)(F)), the lending of money to the Plan is a PT. When she is repaid, the PT is corrected. Then, file a Form 5330 and pay the PT excise tax. An issue to look into: is there any UBTI (unrelated business taxable income) with the mortgages in the plan?
ak2ary Posted August 26, 2008 Posted August 26, 2008 The plan should pay its own bill and have the company that was paid twice reimburse the wife
david rigby Posted August 26, 2008 Posted August 26, 2008 The plan should pay its own bill and have the company that was paid twice reimburse the wife. That could be one alternative, but it places a burden on the payee to (help) solve a problem it did not cause. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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