Ken Davis Posted September 22, 2008 Posted September 22, 2008 All, What exactly is the reach of 457(f)? Does it reach normal payroll payment practices? The 457(f) regs speak of a plan as being any arrangement under which "the payment of compensation is deferred . . . ." Deferred from what point in time? Deferred from when it would otherwise be paid or be made available? For example, what if an employee is paid monthly on the first of the month following the month in which the services are performed (December earnings are paid on January 1)? The first of the next month is the normal payroll payment date. Is that payment "deferred" under the 457(f) regs? Thanks, Ken Davis Univ. of South Alabama
TLGeer Posted September 22, 2008 Posted September 22, 2008 Two comments. First, any 457(f) is also a 409A situation. Because the two provisions are parallel but not identical, any 457(f) question requires three answers--457(f), 409A and combined. Second, the structure of the 457(f)/409A rules is such that any deferral of any kind is regulated. The question is always whether there is an applicable exception or rule allowing the practice. Fortunately, on your narrow facts, and assuming we can assume that all else is normal, there is no problem. However, for example, if that last payroll were part of an annualization arrangement for part-year employees there most definitely would be a problem. There is no hard answer to any general question, and the term "normal" has no relationship to how and when the rules bite. Tom Geer Thomas L. Geer, J.D., LL.M. Benefit Plan Solutions Blog: http://401k-403b-457-plansblog.blogspot.com/ Email: geertom@gmail.com Phone & Fax: (888) 315-6720
Guest Tauriffic Posted February 12, 2009 Posted February 12, 2009 Two comments. First, any 457(f) is also a 409A situation. Because the two provisions are parallel but not identical, any 457(f) question requires three answers--457(f), 409A and combined.Second, the structure of the 457(f)/409A rules is such that any deferral of any kind is regulated. The question is always whether there is an applicable exception or rule allowing the practice. Fortunately, on your narrow facts, and assuming we can assume that all else is normal, there is no problem. However, for example, if that last payroll were part of an annualization arrangement for part-year employees there most definitely would be a problem. There is no hard answer to any general question, and the term "normal" has no relationship to how and when the rules bite. Tom Geer OP, your answer is in Treas. Reg. 1.409A-1(b)(3). This is a 409A problem because 457(f) plans are by definition "nonqualified." Ergo, we look to nonqualified DC regs (i.e., 409A regs)
J Simmons Posted February 12, 2009 Posted February 12, 2009 Tauriffic, By your answer, are you saying that 409A has completely displaced 457f, and that if a situation is okay under 409A there is no need to comply also with 457f? John Simmons johnsimmonslaw@gmail.com Note to Readers: For you, I'm a stranger posting on a bulletin board. Posts here should not be given the same weight as personalized advice from a professional who knows or can learn all the facts of your situation.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now